Problems about Taylor Rule and positive monetary shock

Yashiv_2022_noexp.mod (5.5 KB)
I use it/it_ss = ((it(-1)/it_ss)^rhor*(pit^rpi*(netyt/netyt_ss)^ry)^(1-rhor))*mpt as Taylor Rule
and log(mpt) = rhomp * log(mpt(-1)) - e_mp as positive monetary shock
but it show the result that interest rate rise
Is it normal? And what is the mechinism behind it?
Thanks!

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