Hello,
Please I have run a New Keynesian model with capital and found out that the real interest rate tend to decline on impact to a monetary policy shock. What could be a possible explanation for this?
Hello,
Please I have run a New Keynesian model with capital and found out that the real interest rate tend to decline on impact to a monetary policy shock. What could be a possible explanation for this?
Are you sure the real interest rate decreases and not just the nominal one? What you describe would usually violate the Taylor principle