Theoretical question about Ramsey Policy

Good morning Dynare Forum,

I have a sort of theoretical question about the solution of Ramsey policy problems in general.

I have been asked why I opted for a numerical solution for my Ramsey problem (I used the Dynare routine to solve it) and I have to motivate why I did not opt instead for a primal approach (or, in other terms, why the primal approach was not feasible).

I do not really understand the meaning of the comments, can someone help me?

Thanks a lot for the support!
Have a nice day

It seems the question is why you don’t directly compute the central planner allocation but instead go for a decentralized equilibrium where agents react to factor prices resulting from the planner’s choices. I don’t see how that relates the “numerical solution”. You would need to solve the model in any case, regardless of which specification you choose.