Steady state with a probability distribution? frictions mod

hello, i have some doubts regarding the steady state derivation in a model with financial frictions.

why there is a probability distribution (hence a volatility value) regarding the credit sector when sequentially solving for the non-stochastic steady state of the model?

i understand this is a cross-sectional volatility, but still seeing a prob distr in the derivation of a s.s. seems not too intuitive.

someone to comment please?