I have the attached file. Just a simple baseline RBC model.
Standard deviation of investment is 0.8% where it should be something around 3-4%. I cannot see what I am doing wrong. I would be very happy if anybody helps.
I have the log-linearized version as well, with government spending shocks. I am trying to replicate the baseline model in the attached paper (no world interest rate shocks, no capital utilization, no habit formation). I still find very different standard deviations (the only standard deviation that matches is of output). Why could that be?
I know that. I beg you to check the file. ii cc nn are logs, I defined them like that. But their standard deviations are very weird. i c n’s standard deviations are very weird too. They don’t match those in the paper.