Dear professor,
I am computing the optimal monetary policy based on welfare maximization. I have two policy regimes. welfare_I and welfare_II denote the welfare of two models. And welfare_steady_I and welfare_steady_II denote the steady-state welfare values of two models.
I define
Dwelfare_I =welfare_I - welfare_steady_I;
Dwelfare_II =welfare_II - welfare_steady_II;
Then I define
delta = (Dwelfare_II - Dwelfare_I) / Dwelfare_I;
My problem is, can ‘delta’ measure the welfare improvement effect of regime II over regime I?
I would like to connect this topic with the one that I posted one year ago, and then ask some naive questions.
If “welfare_steady_I”\neq “welfare_steady_II”, how to compute the consumption equivalence?
and
Since steady states under two alternative regimes do not coincide, it seems that the unconditional welfare is more rational here?
Suppose we have a separable and additive CRRA utility form. Does it mean: W^a_0-W^b_0 = \mathbb{E}_0 \displaystyle\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} \beta^t\left[ U\left(\left(1+\Delta^{unc}\right)C^b_{t}, N^a_{t}\right) - U\left(C^b_{t}, N^b_{t}\right) \right]