# Unconditional versus conditional Welfare measure

**URL:** <https://forum.dynare.org/t/unconditional-versus-conditional-welfare-measure/12467>\
**Category:** General DSGE Modeling\
**Created:** [22 September 2018 13:26 UTC](https://forum.dynare.org/t/unconditional-versus-conditional-welfare-measure/12467 "2018-09-22T13:26:04Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 8

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**Author:** ![HelloDynare](https://forum.dynare.org/user_avatar/forum.dynare.org/hellodynare/32/12107_2.png) [@HelloDynare](https://forum.dynare.org/u/HelloDynare)\
**Post date:** [10 October 2021 07:00 UTC](https://forum.dynare.org/t/unconditional-versus-conditional-welfare-measure/12467/8 "2021-10-10T07:00:08Z")

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Hi @dypisgood In my humble opinion, no.

Deterministic Steady State: when we want to compute the conditional welfare, usually we start/perturb the economy from this type of steady state. At the steady state, there are _no shocks_.

Risky Steady State: despite _no shocks_, the agent _observes the distribution_ of the shocks that may hit the economy in future, e.g. standard deviation \sigma. In this context, we simulate long sequences of endogenous variables at a higher order to see they will converge to the risky steady state or the stochastic steady state.

Ergodic/unconditional mean: We get this value by simulating the economy _with shocks_ after a long-run period to compute the unconditional welfare.

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