The final product is not equal to GDP

Hi Prof. Pfeifer and to all,
I have a theoretical question.
Why in the DSGE models the final product is not equal to GDP?
Thank you,

What do you mean? In some models with adjustment costs, there may a difference, because the adjustment costs would not be part of GDP (they are conceptualized as intermediates)

Thank you, professor, but I mean final good, which goes to domestic consumption and domestic investment.
Why separate the production sector into a final good sector and intermediate good sector?

The final good still measures GDP. The production structure reflects intermediate inputs. It is necessary for introducing price rigidities that matter.

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