Hi everyone

I have the following doubt. If I am not wrong, during the Dynare summer school Professor Juillard told us that the olr syntax (which computes optimal policy under commitment ) has been replaced by the new syntax:

planner_objective y^2+pi^2; (y=output, pi=inflation)

ramsey_policy(order=1,irf=0,planner_discount=0.99);

Am I right?

Moreover, is the value of the loss associated with the particular planner objective stored somewhere?

In end, if I run the code with a model that I have derived setting in it the commands for the computation of the ramsey policy (using y^2+pi^2), the policy and transition functions I obtain donâ€™t depend on y and pi. What does it mean? Does it mean that the central planner cares about y and pi variability but that it should not change the interest rate in response to variation in y and pi?