Developed countries or developing countries' household consumption bundle have a smaller share of imported foreign consumption goods

Dear Johannes and other scholars,
First thank you very much for your previous guidance, I am grateful.
I model an open economy model for developed country and an open economy model for developing country, For each open economy DSGE model, I assume that households have a consumption bundle, e.g. consumption is a combination of domestically produced consumption goods with weight (1-alpha) and imported foreign consumption goods with weight alpha.
My question is: do developed countries’ (e.g. U.S.) household consumption bundle usually contain a smaller share of imported foreign consumption goods (lower alpha) than developing coutnries (e.g. China) or vice versa?
Thank you very much and look forward to hearing from you.
PhD Candidate

It’s mostly not about the development status of an economy, but its openness/size. Large economies in terms of population and area typically produce more goods within their borders instead of importing them.